http://m.bismarcktribune.com/mobile/article_ba89ea3c-d0f9-5e2e-9b16-2d07e35534c4.html
So does this mean the state owned the adjacent mineral rights or is the state just more or less stealing the oil instead? If the neighbor is in fact a privately held chunk of mineral rights how does the state have the right to claim it for themselves? The article seems to leave a lot of what may be the key details out so just wondering if any of you guys know anything more about this? Whole thing seems to smell a bit fishy!
So does this mean the state owned the adjacent mineral rights or is the state just more or less stealing the oil instead? If the neighbor is in fact a privately held chunk of mineral rights how does the state have the right to claim it for themselves? The article seems to leave a lot of what may be the key details out so just wondering if any of you guys know anything more about this? Whole thing seems to smell a bit fishy!